Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB-700 Exam Questions

MB-700 exam is a new Microsoft exam related to Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect Expert certification.The Microsoft MB-700 Exam Questions of PassQuestion can not only help you pass Microsoft Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect exam successfully and consolidate your professional knowledge, but also provide you one year free update service.

MB-700 Exam Overview - Microsoft Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect (beta)

The new Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect Expert certification has one exam that is currently in beta: MB-700: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect. You must also have either the Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Developer Associate or any Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations Functional Consultant Associate certification.

Solution Architects for Finance and Operations apps in Microsoft Dynamics 365 are trusted advisors who consult with organizations and implementation team members to refine business needs into a well-defined and cost-effective solution.

Microsoft MB-700 Exam Skills Measured

Identify solution requirements (30-35%)
Design solution components (40-45%)
Define solution testing and management strategies (25-30%)

Prerequisites:

Complete one of the following certifications:
Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Finance Functional Consultant Associate(MB-300 MB-310)
Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management, Manufacturing Functional Consultant Associate(MB-300 MB-320)
Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management Functional Consultant Associate(MB-300 MB-330)
Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Developer Associate(MB-300 MB-500)

View MB-700 Free Questions From PassQuestion Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB-700 Real Questions

1.A company uses a legacy finance application that runs on a single SQL Server instance. The company plans to implement Dynamics 365 Finance. 
The following table describes the current implementation and design decisions for the new implementation:

You need to identify the gap in the migration plan.
Which requirement should you identify as a gap?
A. Business logic
B. Users
C. User Interface
D. Reports
E. Data
Answer: B

2.A company use Dynamics 365 Business Central.
The company identifies the following issues:
- Users report they cannot perform planning and dispatching of service orders or track bills of material in the system.
- The finance department says that licensing costs are higher than budgeted.
You need to recommend a solution to address the issues.
What should you recommend?
A. Use the Lifecycle Services business process modeler to create service order management and manufacturing tasks in the BPM Library.
B. Perform a fit-gap analysis. Implement service order management and manufacturing business processes and license changes.
C. Configure all users as Business Central Premium users.
D. Ensure that the service order management and manufacturing processes steps are documented in a flow chart.
E. Configure all users as Business Central Essentials users.
Answer: B

3.A holding company with three independently managed and operated subsidiaries is implementing Dynamics 365 Finance.
The company needs to ensure the restriction of data for each company from subsidiary counterparts.
You need to determine an organization structure.
Which structure should you recommend?
A. single legal entity with security policies
B. separate legal entities
C. single legal entity with custom business unit financial dimension
D. single entity that consolidates legal entities
E. single legal entity with default business unit financial dimension
Answer: B

4.A company plans to implement Dynamics 365 Finance + Operations (on-premises). The company has system compliance requirements that must be addressed. You need to design the solution for the company.
What should you address in the design?
A. employee retirement
B. data privacy
C. fair labor standards
D. equal employment opportunity
Answer: B

5.An organization is implementing Dynamics 365 Finance.
The organization uses financial reports including detailed balance information in local currencies for all accounts. Reports must include general ledger account number and journal entry line description. You need to recommend a report that meets the requirements.
Which report should you recommend?
A. Audit Details
B. Summary Trial Balance
C. Balance Sheet
D. Cash Flow 
Answer: A

6.A trading company is concerned about the impact of General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) on their business. The company needs to define personal data for their business purposes.
You need to define personal data as defined by GDPR.
Which three types of data are considered personal data? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. password
B. Social Security number
C. a portion of the address (region, street, postcode etc.)
D. International article (EAN) number
E. MAC address
Answer: ABC

Oracle Autonomous Database 1Z0-931 Dumps

1Z0-931 Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Specialist exam is a hot Oracle Certification test. PassQuestion provides Oracle Autonomous Database 1Z0-931 Dumps to help you validate the knowledge and skills to pass Oracle 1Z0-931 exam. You will be well prepared for Oracle 1Z0-931 exam and then successfully pass the 1Z0-931 Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Specialist exam.

1Z0-931 Exam Overview - Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Specialist

Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud Specialist is a must have certificates for any IT professional working with any cloud technologies.An Oracle Autonomous Database 2019 Specialist has demonstrated the knowledge required to provision, manage, and migrate to Autonomous Transaction Database (ATP) and Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW).  It is designed for database administrators, monitors, and Dev Ops admins who want to validate their knowledge and skills. 
 
Individuals who earn this certification are able to understand the features and workflows of  Autonomous Database; provisioning and connecting, migration using SQL Developer, Data Pump and Golden Gate, manage and monitor, and understand tools, reporting and analytics using Autonomous Data Warehouse. 

1Z0-931 Exam Topics Covered In Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Specialist

Autonomous Database Technical Overview
Migration and Data Loading into Autonomous Database
Monitoring Autonomous Database
Provisioning and Connectivity
Managing and Maintaining Autonomous Database
Tools, Reporting and Analytics using Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW)

View Oracle Autonomous Database 1Z0-931 Free Questions

1.What are two advantages of using Data Pump to migrate your Oracle Databases to Autonomous Database? (Choose two.)
A. Data Pump can exclude migration of objects like indexes and materialized views that are not needed by Autonomous Database.
B. Data Pump is platform independent - it can migrate Oracle Databases running on any platform.
C. Data Pump is faster to migrate database than using RMAN.
D. Data Pump creates the tablespaces used by your Autonomous Database.
Answer: AC

2.The default eight-day retention period for Autonomous Database performance data can be modified using which DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY subprogram procedure?
A. UPDATE_OBJECT_INFO
B. MODIFY_SNAPSHOT_SETTINGS
C. CREATE_BASELINE_TEMPLATE
D. MODIFY_BASELINE_WINDOW_SIZE
Answer: B

3.Which task is NOT automatically performed by the Oracle Autonomous Database?
A. Backing up the database.
B. Mask your sensitive data.
C. Patching the database.
D. Automatically optimize the workload.
Answer: B

4.Which three statements are true about procedures in the DBMS_CLOUD package? (Choose three.)
A. The DBMS_CLOUD.PUT_OBJECT procedure copies a file from Cloud Object Storage to the Autonomous Data Warehouse.
B. The DBMS_CLOUD.CREATE_CREDENTIAL procedure stores Cloud Object Storage credentials in the Autonomous Data Warehouse database.
C. The DBMS_CLOUD.VALIDATE_EXTERNAL_TABLE procedure validates the source files for an external table, generates log information, and stores the rows that do not match the format options specified for the external table in a badfile table on Autonomous Data Warehouse.
D. The DBMS_CLOUD.DELETE_FILE procedure removes the credentials file from the Autonomous Data Warehouse database.
E. The DBMS_CLOUD.CREATE_EXTERNAL_TABLE procedure creates an external table on files in the cloud. You can run queries on external data from the Autonomous Data Warehouse.
Answer: BDE

5.Which of these database features is NOT part of the Autonomous Database?
A. Online Indexing
B. Flashback Database
C. Real Application Clusters (RAC)
D. Java in the Database
Answer: D

6.Which two statements are true with regards to Oracle Data Sync? (Choose two.)
A. Data Sync can connect to any jdbc compatible source like MongoDB, RedShift and Sybase.
B. Data Sync can use a normal OCI (thick) client connection to connect to an Oracle database.
C. Data Sync can load your data in parallel in order to speed up the loading process.
D. Data Sync has default drivers available that supported loading data from DB2, Microsoft SQL Server, MySQL and Teradata.
Answer: AC

AZ-220 Exam Questions - Microsoft Azure IoT Developer

Microsoft AZ-220 exam is a new exam of Microsoft Azure IoT Developer, if you passed this exam, you will be eligible for the Microsoft Certified: Azure IoT Developer Specialty certification.PassQuestion Microsoft AZ-220 Exam Questions will help you prepare for your AZ-220 exam. It covers the exam objectives and topics you will be tested on. PassQuestion Microsoft AZ-220 testing engine simulates the actual exam experience which can help you pass your AZ-220 exam successfully.

Microsoft Azure IoT Developer AZ-220 Exam Information

This Microsoft Certified Azure IoT Developer AZ-220 will provide you with the skills and knowledge required to successfully create and maintain the cloud and edge portions of an Azure IoT solution. It includes full coverage of the core Azure IoT services such as IoT Hub, Device Provisioning Services, Azure Stream Analytics, Time Series Insights, and more. In addition to the focus on Azure PaaS services, it also includes sections on IoT Edge, device management, monitoring and troubleshooting, security concerns, and Azure IoT Central. 

The Azure IoT Developer is responsible for the implementation and the coding required to create and maintain the cloud and edge portion of an IoT solution. In addition to configuring and maintaining the devices by using cloud services, the IoT Developer also sets up the physical devices. The IoT Developer is responsible for maintaining the devices throughout the life cycle.

AZ-220 Exam Skill Measured - Microsoft Azure IoT Developer

Implement the IoT solution infrastructure (15-20%)
Provision and manage devices (20-25%)
Implement Edge (15-20%)
Process and manage data (15-20%)
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize IoT solutions (15-20%)
Implement security (15-20%)

View Microsoft Certified: Azure IoT Developer Specialty AZ-220 Free Questions

1. Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: From the Device Provisioning Service, you disable the enrollment group, and you disable device entries in the identity registry of the IoT hub to which the IoT devices are provisioned.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

2.Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: You delete the enrollment group from the Device Provisioning Service.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

3.You plan to deploy a standard tier Azure IoT hub.
You need to perform an over-the-air (OTA) update on devices that will connect to the IoT hub by using scheduled jobs.
What should you use?
A. a device-to-cloud message
B. the device twin reported properties
C. a cloud-to-device message
D. a direct method
Answer: D

4.You have an IoT device that gathers data in a CSV file named Sensors.csv. You deploy an Azure IoT hub that is accessible at ContosoHub.azure-devices.net. You need to ensure that Sensors.csv is uploaded to the IoT hub.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Upload Sensors.csv by using the IoT Hub REST API.
B. From the Azure subscription, select the IoT hub, select Message routing, and then configure a route to storage.
C. From the Azure subscription, select the IoT hub, select File upload, and then configure a storage container.
D. Configure the device to use a GET request to ContosoHub.azure-devices.net/devices/ContosoDevice1/ files/notifications.
Answer: AC

5.You plan to deploy an Azure IoT hub.
The IoT hub must support the following:
- Three Azure IoT Edge devices
- 2,500 IoT devices
Each IoT device will spend a 6 KB message every five seconds.
You need to size the IoT hub to support the devices. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you choose?
A. one unit of the S1 tier
B. one unit of the B2 tier
C. one unit of the B1 tier
D. one unit of the S3 tier
Answer: D

PSM II Exam Questions - Professional Scrum Master II

Want to pass PSM II Professional Scrum Master II Exam? Using PassQuestion PSM II Exam Questions can help you pass the Professional Scrum Master II exam easily. If you are the first time to participate in Scrum PSM II exam, selecting PassQuestion PSM II Exam Questions will increase your confidence of passing the exam and will effectively help you pass the PSM II exam.

PSM II Exam Overview - Professional Scrum Master II

The Professional Scrum Master level II (PSM II) assessment is available to anyone who wishes to demonstrate his or her ability to apply the Scrum framework to solving advanced, complex problems in the real world. Those that pass the assessment will receive the industry recognized PSM II Certification as an indication of their advanced knowledge and abilities pertaining to Scrum and the role of the Scrum Master.

Professional Scrum Master II Exam Details

Fee: $250 USD
Passing score: 85%
Time limit: 90 minutes
Number of Questions: 30 (partial credit provide on some questions)
Difficulty: Advanced
Format:  Multiple Choice, Multiple Answer and True/False
Language: English only

PSM II Professional Scrum Master II Exam Subject Areas

Scrum Framework
Scrum Theory and Principles
Teams
Coaching and Facilitation
Done and Undone 
Maximizing Value 
Product Backlog Management
Scaling Fundamentals

The Difference Between PSM I And PSM II Exams

PSM I is perfect for people who want to understand the basics of Scrum thoroughly. The training and study required prior to the assessment make sure that you are comfortable using internationally recognized terminology for Scrum approaches.

PSM II is the next step for people who want to take it further. It goes beyond being able to evidence that you understand Scrum, and shows that you can use it in the workplace.

PSM I is a prerequisite for taking the PSM II assessment. The second Professional Scrum Master level builds on what is assessed at Level 1, so you need to have successfully taken and passed the PSM I assessment before moving on to the PSM II exam.

View Professional Scrum Master II PSM II Free Questions

1.A Scrum Master is not only a servant-leader to the Scrum Team and organization, it's also considered a management position.
Which three activities describe what a Scrum Master manages as reflected by the Scrum Guide? (Choose three.)
A. Reporting on the performance of the Sprint.
B. The way Scrum is understood and enacted within the organization.
C. Managing the capacity and utilization of each Development Team member.
D. Managing the process in which Scrum is applied.
E. Managing the Product Backlog items and work in the Sprint Backlog.
F. Removing organizational impediments that limits the team’s progress and productivity.
Answer: BDF

2.An organization has just hired you as a new Scrum Master to help them transition their teams from their current traditional process to Scrum. The teams are currently structured to specialize in a single function. This is also known as component teams where a team would only address a single layer (i.e. design, frontend, backend, database, testing, etc.). You've introduced the concept of cross-functional teams where all the skills needed to produce business functionality, from end to end, are inside of a single team.
What should you keep in mind when transitioning from siloed teams to cross-functional teams? (Choose two.)
A. It is easier to compare the performance between cross-functional teams in order to identify to which teams to assign tasks and which teams need additional coaching.
B. Newly formed teams will need time to stabilize before reaching their peak performance. During the initial stages of forming, performance will suffer and productivity may be low, although even then delivery of business value is still likely to increase.
C. Without feature teams, you cannot do Scrum. Postpone Scrum adoption until the teams are reorganized in feature teams.
D. People from the different layers and components will need time to become accustomed to working and delivering unified functionality together as one Scrum Team thus productivity may suffer.
Answer: BD

3.Paul is a Product Owner for multiple products. Each product is allocated a dedicated Scrum Team and a set budget. Based on the average velocity of a previous product release, Paul had estimated a new product to take 9 Sprints to complete. The average velocity of the previous product release was 50 completed units of work per Sprint. Over the first 3 Sprints, the Development Team reported an average velocity of 40 completed units per Sprint, while not fully completing the required integration tests. The Development Team estimates that integration testing would require additional effort to make the increments shippable. The Development Team is unsure if the required velocity is achievable.
What is the most effective way to recover?
A. In the next Sprints, the Development Team strives to make the selected work as close to ‘done’ as possible and at the minimum 90% completed. Any undone work is divided into new Product Backlog Items that will be deferred to the last Sprint in order to maintain stable velocity.
B. The Development Team informs Paul that the progress he has perceived to date is not correct. The Increment is not releasable. They give Paul their estimate of the effort it would take to get the previous work ‘done’, and suggest doing that work first before proceeding with new features. The team also re estimates the effort to make the remaining Product Backlog items ‘done’, including all integration effort. In the end, it is Paul’s call to continue the project or to cancel.
C. The Scrum Master will manage the Sprint Backlog and assign work to the Development Team members to ensure maximum utilization of each member. He/she will keep track of unused resources so that it does not impact the budget. Unused budget can be allocated for additional Sprints if needed.
D. The Scrum Master sets the open work aside to be performed in one or more release Sprints. They remind Paul to find funding for enough Release Sprints in which this remaining work can be done. Up to one release Sprint per three development Sprints may be required. It is Paul’s role to inform users and stakeholders of the impact on the release date.
Answer: B

4.Paul, a Product Owner of one of the Scrum Teams, has been attending the Daily Scrum. During the Daily Scrum, the Development Team members have been reporting their daily work to Paul so that he is aware of their Sprint progress and what each member is working on.
What is the best action for the Scrum Master to take?
A. Ask Paul to stop attending the Daily Scrum.
B. Coach Paul and Development Team members on the purpose of the Scrum events and let them figure out what to do in this situation.
C. Allow the Paul to participate in the Daily Scrum as he is responsible for the success of the product.
D. Facilitate the Daily Scrums to avoid any conflicts between the Development Team members and Paul.
Answer: B

5.Steven, the Scrum Master, is approached by one of the Development Team members saying that they are not completing regression tests for all of the work they are performing to the level defined in the Definition of Done. They have discussed this with the Product Owner and decided to remove regression testing from the Definition of Done.
Which two actions are the most appropriate for Steven to take? (Choose two.)
A. Reject the decision as the long term maintainability of the product will be negatively impacted by modifying the Definition of Done.
B. Accept the decision as a mutual agreement has been made between the Development Team and the Product Owner.
C. Ask the Development Team and the Product Owner what problem they are trying to solve by altering the Definition of Done and removing regression testing from it. In what ways will this decision impact transparency and quality?
D. Ask the Development Team and the Product Owner if they are still able to produce potentially shippable product increments by altering the Definition of Done?
Answer: CD

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C01 Exam Dumps

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner is the newest basic level certification exam provided by Amazon Web Services. PassQuestion provides you the latest AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C01 Exam Dumps which contain actual exam structure and contents for your exam preparation. The information of PassQuestion can ensure you pass your exam in the first time to participate in the AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner exam.

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C01 Exam Overview

The AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner (CLF-C01) examination is intended for individuals who have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to demonstrate basic knowledge of the AWS platform, including: available services and their common use cases, AWS Cloud architectural principles (at the conceptual level), account security, and compliance. The exam can be taken at a testing center or from the comfort and convenience of a home or office location as an online proctored exam.Also, this AWS CCP certification acts as a prerequisite alternative for Advanced Networking and Big Data Certification exams.

It validates an examinee's ability to:

• Explain the value of the AWS Cloud.
• Understand and explain the AWS shared responsibility model.
• Understand AWS Cloud security best practices.
• Understand AWS Cloud costs, economics, and billing practices.
• Describe and position the core AWS services, including compute, network, databases, and storage.
• Identify AWS services for common use cases.

Recommended Knowledge and Experience

Candidates have at least six months of experience with the AWS Cloud in any role, including technical, managerial, sales, purchasing, or financial
Candidates should have a basic understanding of IT services and their uses in the AWS Cloud platform

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Certification Content Outline

View Online AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C01 Free Questions

1.Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following is the customer responsible for?
A. Ensuring that disk drives are wiped after use.
B. Ensuring that firmware is updated on hardware devices.
C. Ensuring that data is encrypted at rest.
D. Ensuring that network cables are category six or higher.
Answer: C

2.The use of what AWS feature or service allows companies to track and categorize spending on a detailed level?
A. Cost allocation tags
B. Consolidated billing
C. AWS Budgets
D. AWS Marketplace
Answer: C

3.Which service stores objects, provides real-time access to those objects, and offers versioning and lifecycle capabilities?
A. Amazon Glacier
B. AWS Storage Gateway
C. Amazon S3
D. Amazon EBS
Answer: C

4.What AWS team assists customers with accelerating cloud adoption through paid engagements in any of several specialty practice areas?
A. AWS Enterprise Support
B. AWS Solutions Architects
C. AWS Professional Services
D. AWS Account Managers
Answer: C

5.A customer would like to design and build a new workload on AWS Cloud but does not have the AWS-related software technical expertise in-house.
Which of the following AWS programs can a customer take advantage of to achieve that outcome?
A. AWS Partner Network Technology Partners
B. AWS Marketplace
C. AWS Partner Network Consulting Partners
D. AWS Service Catalog
Answer: C

6.Distributing workloads across multiple Availability Zones supports which cloud architecture design principle?
A. Implement automation.
B. Design for agility.
C. Design for failure.
D. Implement elasticity.
Answer: C

New Azure Developer AZ-204 Exam Questions Replacement of AZ-203 Test

The AZ-204 exam is new released and replace the AZ-203 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure exam which will be retired on August.Once a candidate passes either the AZ-203 or AZ-204 exam they will earn the Microsoft Certified: Azure Developer Associate certification. PassQuestion provides the latest Azure Developer AZ-204 Exam Questions which cover all the exam topics and objectives and will prepare you for success quickly and efficiently. We regularly update the AZ-204 questions and answers to make sure you always gain access to the most current product.

AZ-204 Exam Description - Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure

The new AZ-204 beta exam is the ideal choice for any individual aspiring to become a cloud developer on Azure. The AZ-204 exam is suitable for candidates who want to participate in all stages of development, starting from requirements definition. Candidates for this exam also have to contribute to the design, development, deployment, and maintenance of solutions on Microsoft Azure. 

The AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure certification exam tests and validates your expertise as an Azure Developer. This exam tests your expertise across all phases of the Microsoft Azure development process; from solution design, to development and deployment, to testing and maintenance.

AZ-204 Exam Skill Measured

Develop Azure compute solutions (25-30%)
Develop for Azure storage (10-15%)
Implement Azure security (15-20%)
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize Azure solutions (10-15%)
Connect to and consume Azure services and third-party services (25-30%)

View Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure AZ-204 Free Questions

1.Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You develop a software as a service (SaaS) offering to manage photographs. Users upload photos to a web service which then stores the photos in Azure Storage Blob storage. The storage account type is General-purpose V2.
When photos are uploaded, they must be processed to produce and save a mobile-friendly version of the image. The process to produce a mobile-friendly version of the image must start in less than one minute.
You need to design the process that starts the photo processing.
Solution: Convert the Azure Storage account to a BlockBlobStorage storage account.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

2.You are developing an application that uses Azure Blob storage.
The application must read the transaction logs of all the changes that occur to the blobs and the blob metadata in the storage account for auditing purposes. The changes must be in the order in which they occurred, include only create, update, delete, and copy operations and be retained for compliance reasons.
You need to process the transaction logs asynchronously.
What should you do?
A. Process all Azure Blob storage events by using Azure Event Grid with a subscriber Azure Function app.
B. Enable the change feed on the storage account and process all changes for available events.
C. Process all Azure Storage Analytics logs for successful blob events.
D. Use the Azure Monitor HTTP Data Collector API and scan the request body for successful blob events.
Answer: B

3.You are developing a web app that is protected by Azure Web Application Firewall (WAF). All traffic to the web app is routed through an Azure Application Gateway instance that is used by multiple web apps. The web app address is contoso.azurewebsites.net.
All traffic must be secured with SSL. The Azure Application Gateway instance is used by multiple web apps.
You need to configure the Azure Application Gateway for the app.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. In the Azure Application Gateway’s HTTP setting, enable the Use for App service setting.
B. Convert the web app to run in an Azure App service environment (ASE).
C. Add an authentication certificate for contoso.azurewebsites.net to the Azure Application gateway.
D. In the Azure Application Gateway’s HTTP setting, set the value of the Override backend path option to contoso22.azurewebsites.net.
Answer: AD

4.You need to store the user agreements.
Where should you store the agreement after it is completed?
A. Azure Storage queue
B. Azure Event Hub
C. Azure Service Bus topic
D. Azure Event Grid topic
Answer: B

5.You develop Azure solutions.
You must connect to a No-SQL globally-distributed database by using the .NET API.
You need to create an object to configure and execute requests in the database.
Which code segment should you use?
A. new Container(EndpointUri, PrimaryKey);
B. new Database(Endpoint, PrimaryKey);
C. new CosmosClient(EndpointUri, PrimaryKey);
Answer: C

HPE0-V14 Dumps - Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions

HPE0-V14 Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions exam is available at PassQuestion. PassQuestion provides you the highest quality HPE ATP HPE0-V14 Dumps which will help you pass your exam successfully. PassQuestion will also help you well consolidate the related IT professional knowledge to let you have a good preparation for your first time to participate in HPE ATP - Hybrid IT Solutions V2 HPE0-V14 Exam.

HPE0-V14 Exam Description - Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions

This ATP certification validates a successful candidate has foundational knowledge and skills of the HPE infrastructure strategy, encompassing SMB server, storage, networking, and management tools and their underlying architecture technologies. Given a set of customer requirements and a solution design, implement the solution.

Ideal Candidate For This Exam

The ideal candidate has a minimum of twelve months hands-on experience or equivalent in at least one of the core HPE areas (Server, Storage, and Networking) and six months experience or equivalent in other HPE SMB solutions and foundational technologies.

The candidate assists with the design and participates in the demonstration/proof of concept, integration, and administration aspects of foundational HPE solutions.

HPE ATP - Hybrid IT Solutions V2 HPE0-V14 Exam Topics

View HPE0-V14 Free Questions From PassQuestion HPE ATP HPE0-V14 Dumps

1.A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack.
Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer requirements?
A. HPE Moonshot
B. HPE MSA
C. HPE Apollo Servers
D. HPE SimplVity 380
Answer: C

2.Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has been using VEEAM and the HPE StoreOnce 3620 shown in the exhibit to backup their environment. The customer’s legal team has asked to double their retention times for all backup sets, and they are starting to run out of space on the StoreOnce.
Which options could you recommend that the customer add to their existing configuration to accommodate the new requirement? (Select two. Each option represents a separate solution.)
A. HPE StoreOnce Cloud Bank Storage
B. HPE StoreOnce 3620 24TB Capacity Upgrade Kit
C. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 16Gb Fibre Channel Network Card
D. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 10/25Gb SFP Network card
E. HPE D3710 Storage Enclosure
Answer: BD

3.A customer needs NFS access on a fiber channel array.
What must be included in the solution to meet this requirement?
A. StoreEver
B. Storage File Controller
C. Smart Array Controller 
D. StoreOnce RMC
Answer: B

4.What is the correct cable type to use when connecting a pair of switches using Long Range (LR) Transceivers?
A. Direct Attach Cable (DAC)
B. Twin-Ax
C. Single Mode Fiber
D. Multi-mode Fiber
Answer: C

5.When is it appropriate for a customer to implement HPE OneView Standard?
A. To manage multiple servers
B. To monitor their services
C. To enable the Advanced iLO license
D. To update firmware
Answer: B

6.You are creating a configuration for a new Nimble HF40 array.
Which tool should you use to ensure that you include adequate cache in the configuration?
A. HPE NinjaSTARS
B. HPE Storage Sizer
C. HPE OneView
D. HPE SPOCK
Answer: A

MCPA-Level 1 MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 Exam Questions

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What Is MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1?

The MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 exam validates that an architect has the required knowledge and skills to direct the emergence of an effective application network out of individual integration solutions following API-led connectivity across an organization using Anypoint Platform. S/he should be able to:

• Optimize and shape the Anypoint Platform deployment in the specific organizational context, working with business, infrastructure, InfoSec, and other teams.
• Define how Anypoint Platform is used in conjunction with other tools and applications in the organization.
• Define the usage of Anypoint Platform and the corresponding organizational and process changes needed to help the Platform be sustainable.
• Provide guidance and drive creation of standards, reusable assets, and automation required for scale and multi-LOB adoption.

MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 Exam Overview

Format: Multiple-choice, closed book, proctored online or in a testing center
Length: 58 questions
Duration: 120 minutes (2 hours)
Pass score: 70%
Language: English
Cost: $375
The exam can be taken a maximum of 5 times, with a 24 hour wait between each attempt.

MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 Exam Topics

The exam validates that the candidate can perform the following tasks.

View Online MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 Free Questions

1.What API policy would LEAST likely be applied to a Process API?
A. Custom circuit breaker
B. Client ID enforcement
C. Rate limiting
D. JSON threat protection
Answer: A

2.What is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the success of a typical C4E that is immediately apparent in responses from the Anypoint Platform APIs?
A. The number of production outage incidents reported in the last 24 hours
B. The number of API implementations that have a publicly accessible HTTP endpoint and are being managed by Anypoint Platform
C. The fraction of API implementations deployed manually relative to those deployed using a CI/CD tool
D. The number of API specifications in RAML or OAS format published to Anypoint Exchange
Answer: B

3.An organization is implementing a Quote of the Day API that caches today's quote.
What scenario can use the CloudHub Object Store via the Object Store connector to persist the cache's state?
A. When there are three CloudHub deployments of the API implementation to three separate CloudHub regions that must share the cache state.
B. When there are two CloudHub deployments of the API implementation by two Anypoint Platform business groups to the same CloudHub region that must share the cache state.
C. When there is one deployment of the API implementation to CloudHub and another deployment to a customer-hosted Mule runtime that must share the cache state.
D. When there is one CloudHub deployment of the API implementation to three CloudHub workers that must share the cache state.
Answer: C

4.What condition requires using a CloudHub Dedicated Load Balancer?
A. When cross-region load balancing is required between separate deployments of the same Mule application
B. When custom DNS names are required for API implementations deployed to customer-hosted Mule runtimes
C. When API invocations across multiple CloudHub workers must be load balanced
D. When server-side load-balanced TLS mutual authentication is required between API implementations and API clients
Answer: B

5.What do the API invocation metrics provided by Anypoint Platform provide?
A. ROI metrics from APIs that can be directly shared with business users
B. Measurements of the effectiveness of the application network based on the level of reuse
C. Data on past API invocations to help identify anomalies and usage patterns across various APIs
D. Proactive identification of likely future policy violations that exceed a given threat threshold
Answer: C

6.What is true about the technology architecture of Anypoint VPCs?
A. The private IP address range of an Anypoint VPC is automatically chosen by CloudHub.
B. Traffic between Mule applications deployed to an Anypoint VPC and on-premises systems can stay within a private network.
C. Each CloudHub environment requires a separate Anypoint VPC.
D. VPC peering can be used to link the underlying AWS VPC to an on-premises (non AWS) private network.
Answer: B

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DEA-1TT4 Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 4 Exam is a qualifying exam for the Associate - Information Storage and Management (DCA-ISM) certification.To keep pace with real DEA-1TT4 ISM V4 Exam, PassQuestion new updated DELL EMC ISM V4 DEA-1TT4 Real Exam Questions. It is the latest version for ensuring that you can pass EMC DEA-1TT4 exam in the first try. So we highly recommend that if you are preparing for your DEA-1TT4 exam, please choose our real EMC ISM V4 DEA-1TT4 questions online to study.

DEA-1TT4 Associate - Information Storageand Management Version 4 Exam Overview

DEA-1TT4 exam focuses on information storage and management in a data center. It includes third platform technologies, intelligent storage systems, software-defined storage, storage networking technologies, and various business continuity options– along with security and management of a storage infrastructure. A limited number of questions refer to product examples that are used in the training to reinforce the knowledge of technologies and concepts.

DELL EMC ISM V4 DEA-1TT4 Exam Topics Covered In The DEA-1TT4 Real Test

Modern Data Center Infrastructure (15%)
• Describe the data classification, elements of a data center, key characteristics of a data center, and key technologies driving digital transformation 
• Explain the cloud characteristics, cloud service models, and cloud deployment models
• Explain the key characteristics of big data, components of a big data analytics solution, Internet of Things (IoT), machine learning, and artificial intelligence (AI)
• Describe the building blocks of a modern data center
• Describe a compute system, storage, connectivity in a data center, application, and options to build a modern data center
Storage Networking Technologies (20%)
• Describe Storage Area Network (SAN), FC architecture, FC topologies, zoning, and virtualization in FC SAN
• Describe TCP/IP, IP SAN, iSCSI protocol, components, connectivity, addressing, discovery domains, and VLAN
• Explain the components and connectivities of FCIP and FCoE
Storage Systems (26%)
• Explain the components of an intelligent storage system, RAID, erasure coding, data access methods, scale-up and scale-out architectures
• Explain the components of block-based storage system, storage provisioning, and storage tiering mechanisms
• Explain the NAS components and architecture, NAS file sharing methods,  and file-level virtualization and tiering
• Describe object-based storage device components, functions, operations, and unified storage architecture
• Describe software-defined storage attributes, architecture, functions of the control plane, software-defined extensibility, and software-defined networking functionalities
Backup, Archive, and Replication (24%)
• Describe the information availability measurements and key fault tolerance techniques
• Explain backup granularity, architecture, backup targets, operations, and backup methods
• Describe data deduplication and data archiving solutions architecture
• Describe replication uses, and replication and migration techniques
Security and Management (16%)
• Describe the information security goals, terminologies, various security domains, and threats to a storage infrastructure
• Explain key security controls to protect the storage infrastructure
• Describe the storage infrastructure management functions and processes

View DELL EMC ISM V4 DEA-1TT4 Free Questions Online Before Ordering PassQuestion Real DEA-1TT4 Exam Questions

1.What is an accurate statement about Governance?
A. Restrict access to certain users
B. Ensure removal of security risks
C. Authorize policy-making decisions
D. Demonstrate adherence to polices
Answer: C

2.A company is using an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) to scan and analyze intrusion events.
Which IDPS technique uses a database that contains known attack patterns?
A. Role-based
B. Profile-based
C. Signature-based
D. Anomaly-based
Answer: C

3.An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from Monday through Friday.
However, a failure of Port4 occurs as follows:
• Monday = 8 PM to 9 PM
• Wednesday 7 PM to 9 PM
• Thursday = 6 AM to 9 AM
• Saturday = 4 PM to 7 PM
What is the MTTR of Port 4?
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 28 hours
D. 38 hours
Answer: A

4.What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?
A. Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing
B. Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing
C. Requires a software adapter with built-in functionality
D. Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling
Answer: A

5.When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments.
What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the configuration?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: A

6.What is a key advantage of cloning a virtual machine (VM)?
A. Ability to run new VMs simultaneously with the same IP address.
B. Reduces the time required to create multiple copies of a VM.
C. Improves the performance of an existing VM and new VMs.
D. Eliminates the need to create multiple snapshots for a VM.
Answer: B

ACMA v8.4 HPE6-A70 Real Exam Questions

HPE6-A70 Aruba Certified Mobility Associate Exam is for ACMA v8.4 Certification, we have candidates passed this ACMA HPE6-A70 exam with a score of 96% on Mar.06.2020,so you can feel easy to study our PassQuestion HPE6-A70 Real Exam Questions for your preparation. All these 60 questions in HPE6-A70 Real Exam Questions are collected from real test, which can ensure you pass your ACMA v8.4 Certification HPE6-A70 exam successfully.

HPE6-A70 Aruba Certified Mobility Associate Exam Description

The Aruba Certified Mobility Associate Exam tests your knowledge and skills to deploy AOS 8 single-site, on premise, geographically simple enterprise WLANs. Typical candidates for this certification are networking IT professionals who deploy small-to-medium scale network solutions based on Aruba products and technologies.

HPE6-A70 Exam Objectives Tested for ACMA v8.4 Certification

View HPE6-A70 Sample Questions Collected From PassQuestion HPE6-A70 Real Exam Questions

1.A network administrator creates the role employees and adds this rule to it:
user any any permit
The first several wireless clients assigned to the employees role are assigned IP addresses in the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet. Several other wireless clients with the employees role are then assigned IP addresses in the 10.10.20.0/24.
When the Aruba firewall matches traffic from these clients to the user any any permit rule, what does it do?
A. It permits traffic from wireless clients in both the 10.10.10.0/24 and 10.10.20.0/24 subnet as long as the packet has a source IP.
B. It permits the traffic from wireless clients in the 10.10.20.0/24 subnet, but drops the traffic from wireless clients in the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet.
C. It drops traffic from wireless clients in both the 10.10.10.0/24 and 10.10.20.0/24 subnet.
D. It permits the traffic from wireless clients in the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet, but drops the traffic from wireless clients in the 10.10.20.0/24 subnet.
Answer: A

2.A company has many 7220 controllers in its Aruba wireless architecture. A network administrator wants to use the Traffic Analysis dashboard in order to monitor which type of applications are being used by wireless users.
What is required for this implementation?
A. AirMatch and ClientMatch must be enabled.
B. The solution must have active PEFNG licenses.
C. WLANs must use the decrypt-tunnel forwarding option.
D. Firewall policies must include application filtering rules.
Answer: B

3.A network administrator configures an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution to provide wireless access to employees. 
The solution must meet these criteria:
- Authenticate users to a network RADIUS server
- Enforce different Aruba firewall rules based on the user department
How can the administrator meet these criteria in the simplest way?
A. Create a different WLAN and SSID for each department. Apply different firewall policies to each WLAN.
B. Have the RADIUS server send different roles for users in different departments. Apply role-based firewall policies.
C. Create multiple zones on the MM. Assign different departments are sets of firewall policies to different zones.
D. Have the RADIUS server assign users in different departments to different VLANs. Apply firewall policies based on IP ranges.
Answer: B

4.Users to which this policy apply are unable to receive IP addresses with DHCP.

How should the administrator fix the issue?
A. Move the user any svc-dhcp permitrule to the bottom of the list.
B. Remove the deny rule from the policy.
C. Use the correct service alias in the user any svc-dhcp permitrule.
D. Change user to any in the user any svc-dhcp permitrule.
Answer: C

5.An Aruba solution runs ArubaOS 8 and uses a mobility master architecture.
Which feature can network administrators use to balance wireless across APs on different channels?
A. AppRF
B. ARM
C. Client Match
D. AirMatch
Answer: C

6.What is the difference between how a network administrator can monitor clients in the Mobility (MM) interface and in the AirWave Management Platform?
A. AirWave shows trends for the past several minutes, while MM shows longer trends.
B. AirWave combines information from more sources, such as RADIUS authenticating servers and APs.
C. AirWave shows the current signal level for the client connection, while MM does not show RF statistics.
D. MM shows user and role information associated with clients, while AirWave does not.
Answer: B